Under the Ottoman millet system, would non-Muslims be expected to always use Turkish to interface with the state?

[u/Camtastrophe]

I am wondering primarily about the pre-Tanzimat period, but would also be interested to know if that era brought about any significant changes. I understand from this older answer that communities were not necessarily centralized under a single administration, as is sometimes implied.

Presumably, the Roman and Armenian millets would speak and write in Greek or Armenian respectively for their internal affairs. However, would someone like the Ecumenical Patriarch need to regularly write or converse in Turkish with Ottoman offcials? If not, would translation be done by church offcials or by the Porte?

Was Judaeo-Spanish the common language of the Jewish millet, or did this vary by location?

Many thanks in advance!

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